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Sunday, February 12, 2023

The emperor's new integer solutions

Find all pairs of integers a and b that are solutions to the following equation: a(a+1)(a+2)=b2+4.

That’s it. That’s the riddle.

First, since a, a+1 and a+2 are three consecutive integers, one of them must be divisible by 3, so therefore their product a(a+1)(a+2) is divisible by three. So regardless of the value of aZ, the lefthand side of the equation is divisible by 3.

Secondly, we can show that the righthand side of the equation cannot be divisible by three. If 3b, say with b=3, then clearly b2+4=92+4=3(32+1)+11mod3, so if 3b then 3b2+4. On the other hand 3b, then Fermat's little theorem states that b21mod3, so for instance, if 3b then there is some mZ with b2=3m+1,sob2+4=3m+5=3(m+1)+22mod3. Thus, regardless of the value of bZ, the righthand side of the equation is not divisble by 3.

Therefore, since for any aZ the lefthand side is divisible by 3, but for any bZ the righthand side cannot be divisible by 3, then there are no integer solutions to a(a+1)(a+2)=b2+4.

While Fermat shuts the party down for Z2, if we invite Gauss in, there are solutions over the Gaussian integers, e.g., (2,±2i), (1,±2i), and (0,±2i). But this might be a bridge too far for this particular riddle.

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